MONDAY October 16, 2000 volume 11, no. 202
INTRODUCTION
Pat Ludwa's VIEW FROM THE PEW for Monday, October 16, 2000
Teaching from the Chair of Peter
Last month we celebrated the beatification of two Popes, one who we all
remember because we grew up during his papacy, and the other, the one
the radicals attacked for anti-Semitism, Pope Pius IX. It was Pius who not
only defined the Dogma of the Immaculate Conception, but also
Papal Infallibility. That is what ex cathedra - from the Chair of Peter - means.
It does not mean the chair is infallible, but the person holding the office of the
Chair of Peter, the Bishop of Rome when he speaks on faith and morals.
When I was reading Loraine Boettner's "Catholicism" (the anti-catholic's
bible), I read how he tried to show the fallacy of it by noting that the
'chair' was probably no more than a thousand years old. He states that the
Church teaches that the Pope can teach infallibly only while sitting on the
'chair of Peter'. If this is so, and the chair is only about 1,000 years old,
then by the Church's standard's, the Pope can't speak infallibly.
This is of course absurd. 'Ex Cathedra' (from the chair) means no
different than a judge handing down a ruling 'from the Bench'. The judge
doesn't need to actually be sitting on a bench to make a decision 'from the
Bench'.
The problem is, many Catholics have the same distorted notion (carefully
cultivated by some) of what teaching 'ex cathedra' (infallibly) means.
I recall discussing this issue with one person who felt that Ordinatio
Sacerdotalis wasn't an infallible teaching because the Pope didn't sit on the
'Chair of Peter', or have any other ceremony to distinguish it as an
infallible statement. The first problem with this logic is that it doesn't
matter whether or not he sits on the 'chair of Peter' or not.
"...This religious submission of mind and will must be shown in a special way
to the authentic magisterium of the Roman Pontiff, even when he is not
speaking ex cathedra" (Vatican II; Lumen Gentium, Chap 3, #25)
This is handy since, as they have been taught, if they need only follow
what the Pope teaches infallibly, then they need not follow any teaching they
don't feel is infallible. So they are taught that some special ceremony is
needed for it to be an infallible teaching. They reject Vatican II's clear
teaching that we are bound to follow his teachings, even if NOT given 'ex
cathedra'.
The other tact is to say that the Pope can teach infallibly when the entire
Church joins with him, or assents to the teaching. Again, this flies in the
face of authentic Vatican II teaching.
"...this is the infallibility which the Roman Pontiff, the head of the college
of bishops, enjoys in virtue of his office, when, as the supreme shepherd and
teacher of all the faithful, who confirms his brethren in their faith, by a
definitive act he proclaims a doctrine of faith or morals. And therefore his
definitions, of themselves, and not from the consent of the Church, are justly
styled irreformable, since they are pronounced with the assistance of the Holy
Spirit, promised to him in blessed Peter, and therefore they need no approval
of others, nor do they allow an appeal to any other judgment. For then the
Roman Pontiff is not pronouncing judgment as a private person, but as the
supreme teacher of the universal Church, in whom the charism of infallibility
of the Church itself is individually present, he is expounding or defending a
doctrine of Catholic faith" (Ibid )
Note here that when the Pope teaches infallibly he " need(s) no approval of
others, nor do they allow an appeal to any other judgment." No petitions, no
protest, no 'loyal dissent'.
Another misconception is that the Pope speaks nothing but infallible
statements and if asked a question of faith and morals will give nothing but
an infallible statement.
Karl Keating of 'Catholic Answers' and author of the apologetics book
"Catholicism and Fundamentalism" explains Papal infallibility like this.
Let's say the Pope was infallible in matters of faith, morals, and math. You
give him 100 math questions to answer. Will he get all 100 correct? No.
Those he answers will be correct, but he need not answer all of them. This is
why there is a distinction between the Pope teaching as the head of the Church
on matters of faith and morals, and a private person, a fellow bishop, giving
an opinion.
To better understand this, let's look at something which is 'an exercise in
infallibility'.
Vatican I defined Papal infallibility this way:
"Therefore, faithfully adhering to the tradition received from the beginning
of the Christian religion, for the glory of God our Savior, for the exaltation
of the Catholic faith and the salvation of the Christian people, with the
approval of the sacred council, we teach and define that it is a divinely
revealed dogma that the Roman Pontiff, when he speaks "ex cathedra," i.e.,
when exercising his office as pastor and teacher of all
Christians he defines, by his supreme apostolic authority, a doctrine of faith
or morals which must be held by the universal Church, enjoys, through the
divine assistance, that infallibility promised to him in blessed Peter and
with which the divine Redeemer wanted His Church to be endowed in defining
doctrine of faith or morals; and therefore that
definitions of the same Roman Pontiff are irreformable of themselves."
(Vatican I)
To break it down simply, in order for a teaching to be infallible ('ex
cathedra') the Papal teaching must meet four requirements.
1. intends to teach ("teacher of all the faithful")
2. by virtue of his supreme apostolic authority ("supreme pastor")
3. a matter of faith or morals ("pertaining to faith or morals")
4. to be held by the universal church. ("of all the faithful")
Let's look at a recent 'teaching' that many have balked at being infallible.
"Wherefore, in order that all doubt may be removed regarding a matter of
great importance, a matter which pertains to the Church's divine constitution
itself, in virtue of my ministry of confirming the
brethren (c.f. Lk 22:32) I declare that the Church has no authority
whatsoever to confer priestly ordination on women and that this
judgment is to be definitively held by all the Church's faithful."(Ordinatio
Sacerdotalis; On Reserving Priestly Ordination to Men Alone)
1. intends to teach ("teacher of all the faithful")
"Wherefore, in order that all doubt may be removed regarding a matter of great
importance" He clearly intends to teach all the faithful.
2. by virtue of his supreme apostolic authority ("supreme pastor")
"in virtue of my ministry of confirming the brethren (c.f. Lk 22:32"
3. a matter of faith or morals ("pertaining to faith or morals")
"a matter which pertains to the Church's divine constitution itself,"
4. to be held by the universal Church. ("of all the faithful")
"and that this judgment is to be definitively held by all the Church's
faithful."
"I declare that the Church has no authority whatsoever to confer priestly
ordination on women"
If it walks like a duck..!
Now many will say this doesn't relate to the faith. Doesn't it? They claim
that the only reason why Christ appointed men as priests was because He was
constrained by His times. Isn't He God? Is God constrained by the times?
Our 'faith' declares that Jesus is Lord. If He was 'forced' by His times to
do what was normal, then He isn't the Lord! And THAT is a matter of faith.
Besides, if it were true that He was so 'constrained' by His times, why did He
eat with sinners, tax collectors, Samaritans, etc.? Why did He perform
a miracle for a Gentile Roman Centurion?
In short, the Pope need not sit anywhere special, needs no special ceremony,
or approval to teach infallibly. He need only:
Intend to teach, by virtue of his supreme apostolic authority, on a matter of
faith or morals, and they are to be held by the universal Church.
Pax Christi,
Pat
October 16, 2000 volume 11, no. 202
Pat Ludwa's VIEW FROM THE PEW
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